14 ( +1 | -1 ) en passent 2thanks for your answers !!! i have a game (black):1.e4 d5 2.e5 so now i try to move my pawn to e4- if i understood "enpassent" it should work- shouldnt it? (it does not)
19 ( +1 | -1 ) ...Since his pawn occupied d5 before your pawn occupied e5, you cannot do en passant there. However, if your pawn remained on e5, and he moves his f pawn to 2. ... f5, you can take it by moving 3. exf6 e.p.
85 ( +1 | -1 ) also...Since I now understand that you think you should be able to move: 2. ... dxe4 e.p., allow me to explain that you can only use en passant when the opponent tries to pass you by moving the pawn up two squares.
The way I learned en passant - and I found it to be very helpful - was through a history lesson:
Way back in the elder days of chess, the pawn was not allowed to move up two squares on its first move - each pawn was required to move one square at a time. The idea to move the pawn up two squares on its first move was thought up in order to speed up the game. However, to maintain fairness, the en passant rule was made to prevent passing pawns on a primary pawn move. Therefore, it's like for that one move, you can pretend that the pawn moved up only one square rather than two.
Probably more confusing than helpful, but that's how en passant is...
81 ( +1 | -1 ) re: en passant 2Tobit, Chessnovice (novice -- 1603?!? <g>) is exactly right. No, it shouldn't work. En passant can only be done immediately after the move where the opposing pawn moves forward two spaces. In this case, you pawn would already have to have been on d4 or f4. Then, 6. ... d4 7. e4 d4xe3 (e.p.) If you missed the chance by moving another piece on the next move, the opportunity for en passant is gone. And obviously, you can never have a pawn in position to do an en passant on move 2. For an example, see my game against garland -- move 18. board #862700 Also, www.learnthat.com/courses/fun/chess/beginrules15.shtml